Hi Enjolras,
- Sorry for the long rants. I could try to edit this down to something more pallatable, but I'm way behind on my correspondence, so I'll just open the bomb bay doors and let 'er rip . . .
I am going to be a hard sell where postmodern rhetoric is concerned. I feel like I've been immersed in it much of my adult life, and I have yet to "dissolve" in its solution. I'm insoluble in postmodernism . . . and I've had many arguments with its advocates. But while I am admittedly not well read in postmodernist thought, I do not think I am ignorant of its ideas and values. I could understand them "more" (where "more" is "more like an acolyte"), but I think I understand them enough.
And I actually have some agreements with postmodernism's tenets. I am not a true modernist. The bulk of my resistance to postmodernism (despite significant compatibility) is emotional and intuitive. For one thing, I refuse to belong to its tribe, which I find regressive. It lacks the integrity that I feel I need to identify with. And my experience with postmodernism and postmodernists is that they divide people up into members and other. They don't scrutinize members, and they scorn others.
In other words, I have a social psychological approach to postmodernism. It is not a loose trend in academic thought, but a very strict identity group. That postmodernism has (to the best of my knowledge) neglected to turn its ideas of social and identity construction upon its own groups and identities is the height of hypocrisy.
So, I'm sure you can see a trend in my thought: I tend to see schools of thought as tribal (whether Jungian, Freudian, postmodernist, or otherwise). The rhetoric of these tribes, from my perspective, is dogma. It is not directed at "truth-seeking" or knowing objects. Rather, it is a matter of constructing identity. Use the right words (and invoke the right authorities) and you belong to the tribe. Identity is language.
I should say preemptively that the signature retort of the postmodernist who is accused of hypocrisy, fantasy spinning, and generally poor thinking is "Well, I'm not a 'postmodernist'. I'm a Heideggerian/Lacanian/Derridean/Foucault-ian/etc." It's always the other guy, or else one claims to just be "read in" postmodernism, not indoctrinated. But unless one is capable of joining in (on both sides) of a critical conversation about postmodernism, and unless one is able to speak about postmodernist ideas without using postmodernist jargon, I remain unconvinced. Besides, it is not absolute agreement among thinkers that unites them in the same tribe, it is how they construct identity and relate to "others".
The postmodernist approach to science is to level much the same charge against science that I level again postmodernism. Postmodernism claims science is not really a "truth-seeking" enterprise and scientific objectivity is a construction or fantasy unconsciously drawn from the context of social identity, etc. There are two main flaws with this charge. The first is that, however true this might be of the "tribe of science", it is
many times more true of postmodernist tribes. You see, I do not reject the critique outright as "absurd"; it is more a projection than an absurdity. These hypocritical critiques of science are perhaps justified (in the postmodernist imagination) because science is seen as the "Goliath" to postmodernism's "David". But I've been a humanities student in the modern university and socialized in intellectual cultures ever since . . . and postmodernism is no boy David (King David, perhaps). Yes,
in the sciences, postmodernism is not taken seriously. But in the humanities (and even in segments of the social sciences), it continues to hold as much or more power than any other tribe.
In the Jungian world (which is more or less extra-academic), science is a peon. It has no power and influence and hardly any advocates. Postmodernism, on the other hand, has a substantial and growing contingency in Jungian ("post-Jungian") thought. So postmodernism is persisting in bad faith where it claims to be sniping at giants. It is well past the time that postmodernism needed to start looking at itself as an empowered and elite social structure composed of arbitrary constructions.
The second main flaw with postmodernist attempts to deconstruct and depose science is that modern science, as far as elite academic tribes go, is probably the most fit and least "tribal" group. In contrast to postmodernism, philosophy, depth psychology, and various other humanities tribes, science strives for objectivity and a capacity to investigate objects outside of a restrictive and arbitrary dogma. Built into the scientific method is a strategy for factoring out as many of the egoic errors of perception and interpretation as possible. Science uses this methodology to be always growing, always progressing, always self-correcting. At any given point in time, a particular scientific theory or observation could be wrong. But what eventually discovers this error and corrects it is science itself. Not some other, not some thinker from the world of humanities with a clever idea. The scientific method, over time and when properly executed resolves errors. And to date, no other methodological tool of truth-testing succeeds at this self-correction anywhere near as much as Science does. It may even be the case that no other truth-testing tool works at all (but I'd be willing to hear arguments to the contrary).
Postmodernist philosophy has no mechanism for self-correction. And with no mechanism for self-correction, it cannot be anything but dogmatic. In a dogma, what is thought to be right and wrong is established not by testing or logic or trial and error, but by power of personality. Whichever personality has the highest status, controls the most resources is "right". We could equally say that whoever is in vogue as a thinker is right. And their "rightness" is determined entirely by the number and zealousness of followers they have.
Science has historically been plagued by the very same problem . . . but it has a built in mechanism of self-correction. Scientists are every bit as human as philosophers and literary theorists. All humans are subject to the compulsions of tribal participation and group identity construction. In the 19th century especially, there was a lot of narrowminded clubbishness in science, a cult of "rationality" marked by rigid positivism and materialism and dominated by upperclass men. Postmodernism's critique of "science" is fitting for a lot of the science done at that time. And some of this trend does continue on into the present. But science has changed, and postmodernism (like Jungianism) hasn't realized this, because postmodernism isn't really critiquing science itself but actually a projection of the postmodernist other onto science.
That is, I'm saying that the "science" that postmodernism has attacked and tried to deconstruct and "demote" is a fantasy. It is not equivalent to real science.
So when you say:
Yes I agree it is important to emphasize data, but on the other hand data is yoked with a series of commitments that allow itself to be presented as data as such, and so cannot be radically separated from theory and paradigms. The lack of awareness of this, reifies data (which is its purpose – the litmus test of reality) but also these commitments that go along with it which have a particular history of its own. These commitments are ontological, which explains why data and theory can not be radically separated.
I don't think this is actually valid. I.e., I don't think it is valid that a lack of awareness of the way data are yoked to a series of commitments that allow data to be presented as data, "reifies data". This I take to be a statement of dogmatic belief that is not based on actual evidence. And the real irony of such a statement is that, if it were to be substantiated and validated, the method by which that validation would be done would be none other than
the scientific method. But if we have to use the scientific method to verify the truth claim of a postmodernist "hypothesis", that would seem to effectively negate the very argument postmodernism means to make against scientific "reification".
In fact, science doesn't even really deal in capital T "Truths"; only philosophy does. It is philosophy that is constantly in danger of reification in ways that science is relatively immune to. Scientific methodology is the least reifying tool of verification that we have.
I am not claiming that you are wrong that data and theory are in separable, but I do not agree (with the postmodernist program) that this essential relationship inherently invalidates scientific inquiry. It is in this (unverified) belief of postmodernist critics of "science" that a leap into nihilism is made. That is, I see in the postmodernist program a tendency to see the interdependence of things or components of ideas as some kind of indication that these ideas are not only fragile but "false". There is in this mentality a kind of naive and fairly adolescent shock to the insubstantiality of our mental existence. So, if we deconstruct anything long enough, it collapses into nothingness . . . and therefore this "proves" that nothingness is the secret foundation of everything.
But it is very likely that the exact same thing is true of matter itself (and not merely ideas and human creations) when we break it down to the subatomic level. Where is its mass, where is its solidity, its particularity? Basic interaction is not nothingness. Emergence from this interaction is reality and not an illusion.
As for theory, any theory is composed of almost innumerable assumptions. Some of those assumptions have been truth-tested more than others. Where science and human thought in general have struggled is in the evaluation and "proofing" of many unconsidered assumptions that go into making up a theory (especially those assumptions that come from habitual human mentalizations). Postmodern theories suffer just as much from this constructive, interactionist structure as scientific theories do. But, as I said above, over time, science has a built-in mechanism that attempts to proof these assumptions. As a result, scientific theories become more verifiable, more testable, and more functional. This doesn't mean they are perfect, but in science, nothing is ever entirely complete (because data are infinite).
Where psychology is concerned, many more theoretical assumptions remain unverified than in, say, physics. This is probably due to the difficulty of verifying psychological assumptions. But I choose to follow Jung in the idea that psychic data (the phenomena or representations of the human psyche) should be collected and analyzed by psychologists in a style similar to the empirical collection and analysis of data in physical sciences. When we make a psychological theory, it can only be one that is meant to explain these data. Otherwise, what kind of theory would it be? It wouldn't be a genuine theory, then, but merely a belief, a guess (based not on the data as objects but on the believer's subjectivity). The validity of a psychological theory is a matter of its ability to, as elegantly as possible, explain the data collected. The theory shouldn't fudge the data or willfully or heavy-handedly force the data to fit a preexisting paradigm illogically.
So, for instance, where Freud claims that dream images are disguised sexual thoughts, he ignores the data that demonstrate undisguised sexual thoughts in dreams and the data that suggest dream images are not "disguised" at all. He assumes that 1.) dream images are disguised, and 2.) dream images are predominantly sexual. But a thorough analysis of the data (through the collection and recording of dreams, and of the dreamers' associations) does not support Freud's assumptions here. But Freud didn't revise this theory to fit the data; he continued to interpret the data to fit his theory. It is like what happened when Freud was challenged about his Lamarkian use of biology. Instead of acknowledging that his flawed assumption would require him to revise his theories based on that assumption, he said "so much the worse for the biologists".
I am particularly influenced by Heidegger on this point, in that the investigation of metaphysics is conducted along the lines of 'a being' rather than 'being' itself, which is underwritten by the notion that 'being' itself is that which is most banal and not worthy of investigation in it's own right. Wiki entry on Heidegger is actually pretty good if you are curious to know a bit more. I think it specificity deals with the problem you point to regarding chasing data/tails. If I was to summarize, I would consider more problematical than you would the separation between psychic facts and empirical facts as it dodges the issue of facticity in general.
I think the issue of facticity is overblown by the philosophy that meets it with such anxiety. Scientific thinkers (including many philosophers) do not hold fact or truth to be "perfect" or ideal in the way an abstract thought might seem to be. There is a high tolerance for imperfections "on the quantum level" especially. But when we become so fixated on facticity itself, we are not really arguing with those who speak in terms of "scientific facts" (which are contextual and imperfect). Instead, we are arguing with a phantom of ideal truth-claiming that exists only in the mind of the one who so anxiously criticizes such idealism. In material and living reality, "facts" are indicated by very high consistency in previous experience. Does that mean that tomorrow the "fact" will be true? No, but the probability is extremely high that it will be. Even in quantum physics, where we as yet have no laws to understand certain subatomic structures and behaviors, probabilities of these behaviors are extremely high and are therefore considered scientific.
A "psychic fact" in the sense that Jung meant the term is not a theory that predicts where situation A exists for a mind, the mind will produce B. Rather, a psychic fact is an observed phenomenon like a dream or a text, a representation. It is phenomenologically factual. It exists. But the "fact" is "psychic", because what the representation represents (if anything) is not material, unknown and perhaps unknowable. Again, Jung here is arguing with Freud (among others). Freud declares that a dream image of a hat means a penis. Jung counters that this cannot be determined. The "psychic fact" is that the dreamer dreamed of the image of a hat. That hat-fact exists in a context (e.g., kind and color of hat, worn/unworn, its place in the narrative of the dream, etc.). That context is also psychically factual. Jung says that these psychic facts are all the we can really know and are what the psychologist should be primarily concerned with. That the hat means a penis is not a fact but an interpretation . . . although, that one might consistently interpret dream hats to mean penises is itself a psychic fact.
In Jung's dream analysis theory and his archetype theory in general, we can not only study the context of an individual dream or other text or representation/image psychologically (as a "psychic fact"), but we can compare parallel contexts to one another. So someone might dream something that has a parallel logic or narrative structure or contextualization to a myth or fairytale or religious story. Jung posited that holding these parallels up to one another could create a functional resonance, enabling the psychologist to better understand the dream in relationship to the myth, etc. That is "amplification". The danger of this is that the parallel logics are themselves often dependent on interpretations and may very well have nothing to do with one another. That's another topic, though . . . and I will only suggest that functional amplification is an art form, perhaps more like poetry than science. But if an analyst offers an amplification to a patient's dream, and the patient is moved by this amplification in a way that helps them make a functional life or attitude change, it would be fair to say that the "therapeutic effect" was psychically factual and quite possibly connected to the amplification, but not in any provable, causal way.
This would have ramifications on your schema between the relative worth of Jung/Freud, in that Jung respects the difference between different sorts of fact whereas Freud doesn't which on your reading leads to a situation that whilst Jung is ostensibly more religious he is in fact more scientific and visa versa for Freud. The weight of your argument seems to fall upon the scientific consensus, which is only indirectly applicable due to analogy of psychic fact with empirical fact and secondly on the issue of Freud not 'confessing' to his religiosity whilst Jung does. The two contentions are intertwined, I have already indicated why I have problems with the former contention, but I wish to draw attention to its effects on the latter as it is only on the basis of the analogy of psychic fact with empirical that confession to religiosity becomes the barometer of merit.
I don't think you capture my reasoning here. It sounds pretty foreign, so I don't really know what to say about it. I will say this: analysis (Jungian of Freudian) is, in my opinion, a languaging process. The language that comes out of analysis (the dialog between patient and analyst) is largely arbitrary and often experimental. Ideally, both analyst and patient are trying to find and develop a language in which the patient can "heal" or gain/regain some desired existential and relational functionality. Fact has very little to do with the language of analysis. The language has no basis in "truth", but acts as a vessel that contains experiences in a way that allows those experiences to be useful, dynamic, and not destructive to the patient.
But where analytical languaging is overly constrictive or "reductive", the therapeutic effect is more likely to be diminished. That happens in both psychoanalysis and analytical psychology, and I have no guess as to whether it is more common in one than the other. I suspect that the individual skill and art of the analyst determines the outcome more than the methodological tenets. But where a theory of psychology underlies psychotherapeutic technique, and that theory is simply incorrect (refuted by evidence), we might expect therapeutic effectiveness to be diminished. Although, this correlation seems to be surprisingly limited . . . as we can discern from studies of different psychotherapies that seem to show no significant difference in their effectiveness. Yet, they can't all theoretically be "correct" when they disagree with one another. I think the general feeling (though it is sometimes hard for true believers in their theory to admit it), is that the therapeutic effect relies mostly on the rapport between analyst and patient.
But this "dirty secret" of psychotherapies also has the unfortunate effect of enabling flawed theories to persist as dogmas.
I find your description between the personal differences of the two compelling, but I would question the degree of pertinence you attribute to their differences and how it manifests theoretically. On this point the (familial?) spat, the (fraternal?) squabbling between the two, if indeed it is an intra-familial spat - as that is what is in question - that you outline and hold that it constitutes a barrier to any merger. On this point I would note that this could potentially have personal significance for me, in that the potential for merger of different paternal lineages is a displacement for my own situation in not accepting my joint heritage satisfactory. In which case what you view as my attempt to merge Jung/Freud would be a fantasy caused by unmet desire. However, what I am suggesting is not to do with theories as an expression of authorial intent, but that both operate within a shared historical lineage of western science which in some sense conditions and socializes individuality of both Jung and Freud and operates on a level other than that which we attribute to conscious intent. In other words I have problems with your implicit methodological individualism.
I think you are saying that both Freud and Jung are the products of their cultures, and their cultures overlap significantly. No doubt. Although the really big cultural division is the Jewish/Christian one. Judaism was an extremely important cultural construction for Freud and psychoanalysis, and Christianity for Jung was the central myth of selfhood. Those are massive (and fascinating) topics that I won't go into (I wrote a paper that dealt with this in grad school for a literature class taught by a classical Freudian analyst).
As far as the fantasy that many (Jungians, not Freudians!) hold of merger or reconciliation between psychoanalysis and Jungianism, that is something to be posited through a complex and detailed analysis. It is "reasonable" superficially, in my opinion, but fundamentally delusional. It is a defense against anxiety ("defense mechanism"), a desire to sublimate something that is muddied and painful. My general position is that in regarding any relationship between Jungianism and psychoanalysis, the whole complex history has to be taken into account. The individual who seeks a Jungian/psychoanalytic hybrid is like a neurotic patient with significant parental issues. Once these issues are adequately addressed, then maybe some kind of Jungian/psychoanalytic relationship can be discussed in earnest. Until then, as you point out, we have a fantasy to contend with and to analyze.
Psychoanalytic Jungians haven't really been doing this, and I find that both troubling and overtly complexed (because, after all, they are trained analysts and should think analytically about this rather than neurotically or compulsively). The very idea of merger (dreamed up by Michael Fordham, founder of the London school of Jungianism) is, on the most basic level, simply not necessary. Just because Jung and Freud split does not mean they are "estranged" or that their children "must" reunite . . . nor does it mean that their children must be bitter enemies.
What I'd like to see is intelligent criticism of psychoanalytic theory by Jungians . . . not affect-driven attacks. As for those psychoanalysts willing to associate with Jungians, well, I don't know. That's an issue that needs to be understood from within the psychoanalytic tribe. I can only speak to this from the Jungian tribal perspective. Should Jungian analysts study psychoanalytic thinkers? Of course! But they should not strive to be assimilated into the psychoanalytic tribe. Rather, where a Jungian studies psychoanalysis, a self is meeting with an other, and a relationship is formed. Jungianism should strive to understand psychoanalysis from a Jungian perspective, and if we find that this Jungian perspective is filled with delusional prejudices or is functionally criticizable from the psychoanalytic other's perspective, then Jungianism should seek to find a way to grow so that its Jungianism can more functionally relate to both its blind spots and the psychoanalytic other.
What I object to is the Fordhamian reaction, which claims that Jung's undeveloped and blind spots should be filled with psychoanalytic ideas, which are the "most compatible". This is fallacious on so many levels. Jungians first need to take a Jungian looks at Jung's blind spots and see if they can develop a Jungian way of resolving these problems. Reading psychoanalysts on similar issues may very well be useful, but I am opposed to a kind of incautious eclecticism. Jungians need to develop their own ideas, and that creative development can have a relational context. But just taking other tribe's ideas as if they were interchangeable parts doesn't work.
But perhaps an even bigger problem than the fallacy of eclecticism is Fordham's contention that Jung's theory was blind of weak in certain areas. That remains a purely dogmatic claim of the developmental school. There are many valid reasons to disagree with Fordham's insistence that Jung's theory was lacking in certain ways. It is quite likely that Fordham merely didn't understand Jung's reasoning for making some of the choices Jung made.
Ultimately, I feel that Fordham allowed his personal feelings to put him on the Dr. Frankenstein path. His desire to create life seemed valid superficially, but the method (and perhaps the core of the motivation) was monstrous.
The last thing I'll note is that, as a Jungian, I am looking at the psychoanalysis/Jungianism chimera from a Jungian perspective. I don't have an organic psychoanalytic perspective, but I imagine (with confidence) that if I were a psychoanalyst, I wouldn't feel that what psychoanalysis needed was an infusion of a few Jungian ideas. Psychoanalysis can come up with its own solutions to those blind spots of Freud that Jung may have better addressed. And . . . it has! Winnicott, Bion, and other psychoanalysts have ventured ("heretically") into Jungian territory to develop post-Freudian theory. In fact, they did this without giving any credit to Jung whatsoever. Not that they stole from Jung, but they never considered that pieces of Jung should be taken into psychoanalysis to fill out its gaps.
Psychoanalytic Jungians are always going on and on about these psychoanalysts with Jungian-like ideas and implying that this is a demonstration of growing merger between the two tribes. But this interpretation doesn't jibe with the fact that these same psychoanalysts with "Jungian" ideas gave no credit to Jung for them. And who really cares if they had Jungian-like ideas? Jung's thinking on the same issues was still at least as sophisticated. I don't think Jungians need Winnicott or Bion anymore than Winnicott and Bion needed Jung. The whole courting of psychoanalysis just seems complexed to me. There shouldn't be a courting. There should be a professional relationship with a thorough understanding of the history of Jungian/Freudian relations.
Best,
Matt